What I did with my original post was the technique of proof by contradiction. The Christians hold that Jesus is a perfect being incapable of sin. I proved otherwise. From what you say, you simply give proof to my other assertion: the bible is null and void. But I don't think the verses I quoted can be chalked up as a simple mistranslation. As far as I know, in all translations of those verses, there is still no room to assert that man should have orders barked at him by a woman. If you're stating otherwise, let's see the proof.