"Before we leave Hosea, we take the opportunity of refuting the absurd theory that Hosea actually contracted a marriage – two in fact – which were in their nature adulterous. The marriage of Hosea to Gomer the daughter of Dibliam (1. verse 3) was in prophetic vision only. There was never a woman named Gomer. Her name and that of her father Dibliam contain a subtlety which is beyond most commentators. Gomer is Israel and Dibliam is Ephraim, and in the second chapter the visionary marriage of the prophet disappears altogether, and is lost entirely as it merges into the marriage of Jehovah with adulterous Israel."
Am I missing something in this comment or am I just cranky? lol
And even if I had been wrong in understanding this man's comment, I still feel my comment/question has merit. I don't think me applying or interpreting the OT kingdom/messianic prophecies is going to change this, for I know they point to Christ. I still find no basis for saying that things like Revelation 20 should be understood as allegory.