Can I assume that, if a biopsy was done during an endoscopy, and doc says results show I do not have celiac (I also do not get stomach pains if I do eat wheat, tho I rarely, rarely do eat it) that I can be assured no celiac exists in me? I assume that if I had the blood test, that having not eaten wheat in ages would make it hard to detect, but my understanding is the biospy is more definitive - is that right?