q on Matthew 5:17-20

Both translations appear to be saying the same thing, so I assume your question has to do with what the text means and not whether the two passages are contradictory.

Jesus himself gives the proper context of the passage by referring to the Pharisees. They were only concerned with the letter of the law and not the intent behind it or the purpose of it. Col. 2:17 tells us that the law was a "shadow of things to come" whose purpose was to point to the Messiah. Only in Him could the demands of the law ever be met and the terms satisfied.

The key phrase is "till everything is accomplished" or "till all be fulfilled" (both mean the same thing). What does that mean? In John 19:30 Jesus says "...It is finished!". He had fulfilled the law, he "accomplished" (completed) the terms of the law. The law was at that point "finished" and no longer in force. Sin was at last permanently atoned for in Jesus alone.

So Jesus is telling the Pharisees that they were wrong in charging him with attempting to break the laws of Moses. He assured them that the law would stand intact until all its terms were satisfied. Little did they know how soon that would happen, or that the Pharisees themselves would be instrumental in bringing it about.

Does that help? I can try again if needed.