Here is the article that you posted:

Article on have tongues ceased?
1 Cor 13:8-10 says that tongues will cease and that prophecy and knowledge will fade and disappear when 'that which is perfect' has come. What is meant by 'that which is perfect' in 1 Cor 13:10 KJV?

The answer to this question is in the context of the chapter.  Verse 12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known.

1) 1 Cor 13:8 says that tongues, prophecy and knowledge will cease. When will they cease?
2) 1 Cor 13:9-10 say that prophecy and knowledge will cease when "that which is perfect is come".
3) In Greek, the words "that which" and "perfect" are in the neuter form. So, "that which is perfect" cannot be referring to Jesus as the words are not masculine. (in Eph 4:13, G5046 is masculine).

Yes, I suppose he figures he can really add credibility to his article by pointing to Greek. After all, who knows Greek? Practically no one would dare question him now. He can now really twist things and he has. Perfect here in Greek means to reach a complete state of perfection or your final goal.

4) When 1 Cor was written, the Bible was incomplete ... it was 'in part', and that is why prophecy and knowledge, in 1 Cor 13:9, were said to be 'in part'. When the Bible was completed, this special, revelatory prophecy and knowledge ceased because all the future prophecy and special knowledge which God wanted us to have was now contained in the Bible. The word 'perfect' can be translated 'complete' or 'finished' and these words describe our 'that which is perfect' Bible.

This is false teaching and does not hold up when you study the Bible. This is a made up interpretation of men.

The inspired writers of the Bible were given futuristic prophecy and special knowledge. Futuristic prophecy, such as Revelation, was given to these men to foretell the things which God wanted to reveal to man. Supernatural knowledge was needed to explain things like redemption, Christian living, church guidelines etc. After these things were recorded in Scripture, this type of prophecy and knowledge ceased so Scripture cannot be added to today.

The Scripture is indeed God-breathed and men who operate in the gifts of the Spirit today are not to added to the Scripture with their gifts. Many operated in the gifts in biblical times too, but it was never recorded as Scripture. God never intended it to be Scripture.

Normal knowledge will never cease but will continue forever and increase greatly after Jesus' return. Today, we are encouraged to grow in biblical knowledge and to prophecy in the form of biblical preaching, as in 1 Cor 14:24-25, which saves and edifies souls.

This statement is true, however, the gift of the word of knowledge will cease when that which is perfect is come. The gift of the word of knowledge is different than normal knowledge.

What was the purpose of tongues?
1) 1 Cor 14:22 says, "Tongues then ... are a sign for unbelievers". The word "then" ("Wherefore" in the KJV) means that this verse is referring back to the previous verse(s).
2)1 Cor 14:21 says that God will speak to "this people". The New Testament term "this people" always refers to Jews and the unbelievers being referred to in 1 Cor 14:22 (from Isa 28:11-13) were Jews.
3) In Acts, whenever tongues was used Jews were present.
4) So, the purpose of tongues was to be a sign to unbelieving Jews. One sign was to show that salvation was for the Gentiles also (hence the foreign languages). Clearly, the sign is no longer needed.
5) Tongues was also a sign of judgment against the Jews. The quote in 1 Cor 14:21-22 comes from Isa 28:11-13 where judgment is pronounced against Israel. Their Temple was destroyed in 70AD.

You and the writer of this article do not understand the diversity of tongues which is very clearly presented in the Bible. I will try to explain it. I don't have time to hunt up a lot of scripture for you, but let me encourage you to study the Bible with the help of the Holy Spirit instead of articles written by men who do not know what they are talking about.

One kind of tongue is meant to be as a sign for unbelievers. This happened in the Bible and it is also happening today. I have heard many testimonies of this. This seems to be the only one the two of you know of so I guess I don't need to elaborate on this one.

The Bible also speaks of tongues for interpretation. 1 Corinthians 12:30 makes this clear. "Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?" This kind of tongue is when the Holy Spirit moves on someone to give a message in tongues in church or a gathering of Christians. Someone then must interpret. The Holy Spirit must move on someone to interpret and the person interprets as the Holy Spirit gives them the interpretation.

The Bible also speaks of a kind of tongue that is speaking mysteries to God. The term "prayer language" is not used in the Bible, however, the "term prayer language" is the term that man has given to this kind of tongue. This kind of tongue is used in private prayer. This is also called praying in the Spirit. This is the kind of tongue that Paul was referring to when he said that he speaks in tongues more than them all. Because the Holy Spirit helps us pray this is very powerful prayer.

Tongues is nowhere said to be a sign of a Christian being saved through receiving the Holy Spirit

I would agree with this statement.

, nor is it said to be either a Prayer Language, the Baptism of the Holy Spirit or Tongues of Angels. These things can only be read into the text. The Bible only says that tongues was a sign to unbelieving Jews, nothing more.
Mick Alexander

I think I have shown above that the Bible does not "only say that tongues was a sign to unbelieving Jews, nothing more." This is a false statement by the writer of the article, but then most of the article is filled with false statements.

As for the video that you posted of the guy with the cute accent, I did listen to it. The guy doesn't have a clue as to how to interpret these scriptures.

I was really surprised that Tim Conway got most of it right. I just clicked on his video that I saw on the side bar after listening to the one you posted. I thought he would give the same wrong interpretation as the guy that you posted. He seems a little confused on some things, but for the most part Tim has the scripture interpretation right. For example, I'm pretty sure that the belief that all must speak in tongues in order to be saved is not a Charismatic error. It definitely is an error, but from what I've seen it is from those groups that are considered a cult. I don't claim to be Charismatic, but have been to churches that do and I have not seen that error in any of them that I've been to. I have not been to Pentecostal/Charismatic churches that are considered a cult. Why go to something that I know is off? I do claim to be Pentecostal as my experiences with the Lord line up with that belief system which is very biblical.

Tim doesn't seem to understand the different kinds of tongues so he got off trying to explain some of this.

Here is a link to Tim's video if anyone is interested. It definitely has more truth than the one that Vektek posted, but it is far from perfect. I just recommend listening to the first half which was pretty good. It may help you understand some things.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YMkpn0iZonA

I really don't have anymore time to spend on this.  I know I did not go into a lot of detail to debate these issues, but I just don't have the time.  Hopefully,  I did post enough information to cause people to think for themselves and to search the scripture for themselves.  Hopefully, this will cause people to seek the Holy Spirit to teach them the truth of the matter.   I'm sorry.  I just don't have the time to do any better than this.

If you respond, Vektek, with more false articles etc. I doubt I will reply back.  It will be because I don't have the time and not that I agree with your false teaching.