Re: Polgamy, polygyny, polyandry
The Bible says many things about marriage. Jesus even states that remarriage after divorce is sinful. However, I can't find anything that says it is wrong to have more than one wife. In fact, there's nothing explicitly stating that a woman cannot have multiple husbands.
Why is it then, that in modern christian culture, the only socially recognized form of polygamy is "serial monogamy" -- divorce and remarriage?
Is it not more logical to think God is more disturbed by breaking up existing marriage relationships, than He is by joining more than two people?
Throughout the Bible, it is not addressed whether it is lawful for a woman to have multiple husbands. It is strongly implied that it is taboo, but never stated explicitly as a law. For men, it is shown several times that multiple wives was indeed a part of old testament culture, and the people involved are never chastised for this. It is certainly never stated that men are not allowed more than one wife, anywhere.
The office of bishop was to be granted to the husband of one wife. However, this could possibly be translated as "at least one" rather than "only one". Furthermore, most men are not destined for this office, and thus the rule would be quite limited in application, even with the latter interpretation.
Christ in answering the question of divorce states that "it was not so in the beginning," and thus derives the conclusion that divorce is wrong, and leads to sin. However, he does not take this opportunity to say that polygamy is wrong, only that remarriage after divorce is wrong.
Solomon had several hundred wives and concubines. This is not called a sin in the Bible, only the idolotry he later fell into. David likewise had many wives, but was only punished for murdering the husband of Bathsheba and having adulterous intercourse with her. The child of their marital intercourse later was made king.
There have been many cases of polygamous christians throughout the ages, but the Roman Catholic church outlawed it. Certain protestant communities became polygynist shortly after the reformation, but the mainstream rejected them for political reasons.
Most christians are against polygamy. (More against polyandry than polygyny, as it happens.) But is this because we are christians? Or is it because we are a product of western culture? As rational, bible-believing christians, why have we chosen pair-bonding as the exclusive form for legitimate marriage?
If anyone is confused by the terms I used, here are some links:
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=polygyny
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=polyandry
http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=polygamy
[Note: I just realised this may draw heated debate and thus belong in the debate forum. The mods may wish to move it if so, my apologies.]