The 1611 KJV was really produced to further the political agenda of the day. I will not contest this. But this was not done via translation fiat, it was done by eliminating marginal notes. The Bible it wanted to supplant was the Geneva which included these notes written by the reformers. You will find that the KJV translation does not differ much from the Geneva from a pure scriptural standpoint. Even though the Geneva predates it by over half a century. In fact you will see the KJV borrowed heavily from the Geneva in regards to layout of passages themselves. So my question is what passages do you feel where not translated correctly? We can check these against the manuscripts fairly easy now. I have not seen any gross translation issues in the KJV.