Hi everybody, i'd like to ask your help for finding a plausible idea.
Here's the facts:
*Nuts (esp. peanuts) give me reflux, as well as tomatoes, rice, onions and some other foods.
I was reading of dysbiosis-reflux relation, so rice would fit it, as it can probably feed the bad bacterias, but can the other foods do the same?
*fruit alone doesn't give me any bloating or adverse symptoms. I can't say the same of some vegetables.
*Rice, as well as the other foods, gives me bloating and generates symptoms linked with adverse reactions at thyroid and hypothalamus level, such as weakness, impaired thinking, dry mouth/eyes warm hands, confusion, worse tremors (which i suffer of). I think this is connected with leaky gut, which allows toxins to pass and cause body inflammation. Rice then can indirectly contribute to this, via dysbiosis worsening.
*I have no particular food craving; the strongest one is sometimes for canned oil tuna, and potato chips. Would this contradict a dysbiosis hypothesis?
Though I've had important food cravings (for refined carbs mainly) for many years.
*Staying without eating improves my cognitive and physical conditions, and makes abdominal bloating (which otherwise is almost constant) practically disappearing.
Theory 1
There's a condition of dysbiosis or SIBO. Eating the wrong foods feed the bad bacterias, worsening leaky gut and allowing toxins to circulate.
Bad bacterias, when fed, produce gasses (and bloating) which increase abdominal pressure, then leading to reflux. Any FODMAP food will thus increase the symptomatology.
Theory 2
Leaky gut has been caused by other factors, but
food intolerances are one of its consequences.
Reflux manifests itself as a sign of
food intolerances , as well as bloating. Major offending foods produce worse symptoms.
Here it's not clear how
food intolerances would cause reflux.
Theory 3
Low stomach acid causes undigested food particles and acid reflux.
Undigested food particles feed bad bacterias and promote leaky gut. Also, this way toxins and bacterias are not fully digested, making leaky gut symptoms worse.
Would this explain why no reflux occurs with meats (which i think require more stomach acid to be digested)?
Which one of these is the most plausible in your opinion? there are other hypothesis i can consider?