Jerusalem belonged to the Jews long before there was even such a thing as a "Muslim". It also belonged to the Romans, Persians, Babylonians, Assyrians, and Canaanites (assuming such a people ever existed) long before there was anyone known as "Muslim". How does Jerusalem belong to the Muslims alone? Because there are a few centuries old Masajeed there? There are Christian structures there that are *MUCH* older than any Mosque, so even the Christians can make a stronger claim to that land than the Muslims.

> Jerusalem is the place to where our
> beloved Prophet Muhammad travelled by
> night - to its mosque (al-Aqsa Mosque).

And then mentioned was the verse from the 17th surah that talks of Muhammad traveling to masjid al-aqsa (17:1). This is an interesting verse, considering that when the Koran was allegedly written that Mosque was not built yet. Could it be possible that the Koran (or at least that ayat) was written at a later date than we assume? When was Jerusalem captured by the Muslims, and when was the Koran written? Do these two dates match? This verse must have been written after the time of the second Caliph. [Or the masjid was named to reference it- ed.] Maybe the whole story about Muhammad's rise into heaven from that city was created long after his death.