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Re: 1 John 2:18 (Anti-Christ) by Mama Crow ..... Christianity (Biblical) Support

Date:   9/20/2007 4:47:16 AM ( 18 y ago)
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URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=986805

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Dadgum. I'm flustered.

Ok; ok.

Keep reading that passage (you quit too soon)

"Little children, it is the last time; and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists, whereby we know that it is the last time. They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us; but they went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us” (1 John 2: 18-22.)

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

“They" are obviously former members of God's true church who became apostate ... or "they" would have continued traveling with the apostles.

(Notice there were "many" antichrists.)

John uses the term in a broad, general sense ... applying it to the defectors who were once in fellowship with the true church, but who became apostate.

Okay.

But then LATER he warns "Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world! Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God. And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God. And this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that IT should come; and even now already is IT in the world! Ye are of God. little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world" (1John 4 : 1-4 ).

So here, John calls the "Antichrist" an "it."

His reference to the "he that is in the world” seems obvious to me ... Satan.

And his reference to the "He that is in you" must refer to the indwelling presence of Christ through the power of the Holy Spirit.

Right?

Okay.

So since the “Spirit of Antichrist” was ALREADY IN THE WORLD during the time of John, and since the passages in John's epistles are not applied to one specific person, clearly (?) John is saying that any “Spirit” which is hostile to Jesus and His gospel is CONTRARY to Christ; is against Christ; therefore is “anti-christ.”

John seems to characterize his newly-coined term “Antichrist” as a contrary, adversarial SPIRIT (meaning attitude of mind, as well as an evil spirit from Satan, or maybe even Satan himself) but does NOT identify any one, single individual.

Right?

SOOOOOOOOO .... "Antichrist" is/was just a term coined by John in two of his three letters to apply to FORMER MEMBERS of God's true church who "went out from us" like rebels against Christ? like adversaries? Whom then began to RESIST Christ and His people?

Paul never uses the term. Luke never used the term in the book of Acts. And neither James nor Peter ever used the term.

Don't you think we (in general) are over-thinking this "anti-christ" concept?

It seems so plain & simple to me. But ... what do I know?

(Boy howdy, i hope i don't have typos all over the place ... i'm too tired to proofread every last syllable.)














 

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