Date:   5/22/2007 8:29:56 AM ( 17 y ago)
Hits:   6,421
URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=876234

The national government has no legislative jurisdiction over any territory within the several States of the Union, unless the State in which the jurisdiction is alleged has formally ceded it to the National gov't.

This is clearly spelled out in a study done by the Eisenhower administration. The gov't in DC only has legislative jurisdiction over "territories and possessions of the United States (Guam, Philippines, Puerto Rico, etc.) and those areas within the several States of the Union for which the States have ceded.

Where no legislative jurisdiction exists, the laws are of no effect. e.g., North Carolina's legislature cannot enact laws having force in Colorado. Similarly, the National government cannot enact laws having force in Ohio, unless Ohio has specifically ceded legislative jurisdiction. When the national gov emits a law that says nobody is allowed to walk the streets past 6pm, it may apply in Puerto Rico, but has no effect in Oklahoma, to the extent it is repugnant to the Constitution , including the Bill of Rights, and thus null and void respecting Oklahoma, unless Oklahoma had ceded legislative jurisdiction.

It was set up this way originally to protect the citizens of the Several States in the Union from tyranny in government, and the DC government was intended mostly to buffer the relationship between the several states in the union and the rest of the world in their commerce and other dealings with it.





 

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