Date:   9/8/2005 1:36:33 PM ( 20 y ago)
Hits:   4,141
URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=535618

> I read somewhere, though I don't remember where...
>physiologically men need to have an orgasm every two
> to three days due to ejaculatory fluids building up
> and the pressure causing a need for release. Of course
> this is a younger man in the prime of his fertility phase.
> Maybe that accounts for some to the difference.

That's largely true, but a bit of an over-simplification. Remember that those women who have been exposed ante-natally to high levels of testosterone (easily checked -- their ring fingers will be longer than their index fingers) and who have maintained high levels of testosterone are likely to have very well-developed paraurethral glands (the "female prostate") and will have a very similar build-up. They'll also have the same mental processes as males. You could express it in the gross over-simplification "hairier women tend to be hornier"

 

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