Date:   11/30/2005 11:23:34 AM ( 20 y ago)
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URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=407006

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well, answer me this: if the word of god is so accurate and clear and perfect, then why is son of man used in one place and son of god used in another? is it to confuse? is it to be cute? is it a literary device? or literary lisence? if it is the son of gad that is being talked about each and every time either one is used, why say two different things??? man and god are different, are they not?
 

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