Date:   10/26/2013 3:27:01 AM ( 11 y ago)
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URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=2117986

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I'm up way to late as it is, so yes, I'm going to take the easy way out here and post another article that I agree with on this and a youtube video too. I'm sure a lot more could be said about all this than what I'm posting down below.
I'm for sure no expert on the whole tongues issue. I'd like to study it more, but I've studied it enough already at least to be convinced in my own mind.
I'm sorry I got involved in this discussion, unless it has helped someone. But I need to stick to what I said before that I wouldn't respond to your posts Rainy, unless I agreed with them. Thanks for reminding me of that. I really need to make that the rule for myself with not just your posts, but everyone else's too, since I don't have time to debate anyone.


Article on have tongues ceased?
1 Cor 13:8-10 says that tongues will cease and that prophecy and knowledge will fade and disappear when 'that which is perfect' has come. What is meant by 'that which is perfect' in 1 Cor 13:10 KJV?
1) 1 Cor 13:8 says that tongues, prophecy and knowledge will cease. When will they cease?
2) 1 Cor 13:9-10 say that prophecy and knowledge will cease when “that which is perfect is come”.
3) In Greek, the words “that which” and “perfect” are in the neuter form. So, “that which is perfect” cannot be referring to Jesus as the words are not masculine. (in Eph 4:13, G5046 is masculine).
4) When 1 Cor was written, the Bible was incomplete ... it was 'in part', and that is why prophecy and knowledge, in 1 Cor 13:9, were said to be 'in part'. When the Bible was completed, this special, revelatory prophecy and knowledge ceased because all the future prophecy and special knowledge which God wanted us to have was now contained in the Bible. The word 'perfect' can be translated 'complete' or 'finished' and these words describe our 'that which is perfect' Bible.

The inspired writers of the Bible were given futuristic prophecy and special knowledge. Futuristic prophecy, such as Revelation, was given to these men to foretell the things which God wanted to reveal to man. Supernatural knowledge was needed to explain things like redemption, Christian living, church guidelines etc. After these things were recorded in Scripture, this type of prophecy and knowledge ceased so Scripture cannot be added to today. Normal knowledge will never cease but will continue forever and increase greatly after Jesus' return. Today, we are encouraged to grow in biblical knowledge and to prophecy in the form of biblical preaching, as in 1 Cor 14:24-25, which saves and edifies souls.

What was the purpose of tongues?
1) 1 Cor 14:22 says, “Tongues then ... are a sign for unbelievers”. The word “then” (“Wherefore” in the KJV) means that this verse is referring back to the previous verse(s).
2)1 Cor 14:21 says that God will speak to “this people”. The New Testament term “this people” always refers to Jews and the unbelievers being referred to in 1 Cor 14:22 (from Isa 28:11-13) were Jews.
3) In Acts, whenever tongues was used Jews were present.
4) So, the purpose of tongues was to be a sign to unbelieving Jews. One sign was to show that salvation was for the Gentiles also (hence the foreign languages). Clearly, the sign is no longer needed.
5) Tongues was also a sign of judgment against the Jews. The quote in 1 Cor 14:21-22 comes from Isa 28:11-13 where judgment is pronounced against Israel. Their Temple was destroyed in 70AD.

Tongues is nowhere said to be a sign of a Christian being saved through receiving the Holy Spirit, nor is it said to be either a Prayer Language, the Baptism of the Holy Spirit or Tongues of Angels. These things can only be read into the text. The Bible only says that tongues was a sign to unbelieving Jews, nothing more.
Mick Alexander

Have tongues ceased video?
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aGCLc9KtfIE



 

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