Date:   7/29/2010 1:47:25 AM ( 14 y ago)
Hits:   6,940
URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=1661208

 Scroll up and check out the original question. It was all about how people were confused since they did NOT have hiv/aids/cancer/tuberculosis/etc., and textbooks told them that wasn't right, that fungal/yeast problems only come as opportunistic infections.

I don't see how you are coming to that conclusion.  Here is the original post:

I'm kind of confused about the whole theory that only HIV/AIDS and cancer patients are susceptible to candidiasis because from what I can tell, not all people with HIV appear to suffer from it, in fact some look physically very healthy. Why do you think this is?

So the poster was not claiming anything about people that "did NOT have hiv/aids/cancer/tuberculosis/etc" as you claim.  Nor did they mention anything about "textbooks" as you are claiming.  So why do you keep adding your own words to other people's quotes?

What the poster wanted to know was whether or not it is true that only people with HIV/AIDS can get Candida overgrowth.  And as I said before the only way to properly answer that question is to first explain what HIV+ means, which is NOTHING.  And before you go off in another rant over this fact why don't you try reading the evidence I posted in my last post from the medical journals and even a HIV antibody test packet insert admitting that the test cannot confirm the presence of particular antibodies let alone the actual virus.  Then you and  #65089 can help each other in pulling your feet out your mouths!!!!

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