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Re: Predestination. by vektek ..... Christianity Debate

Date:   7/21/2009 6:49:52 PM ( 15 y ago)
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URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=1460151

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I do understand what you are saying here
"There is NO interference from GOD for “freewill“…to do so would taint, defile the JUDGMENT SEAT."



Everyone, let's go over Romans 9 again. Still no one has explained what these verses mean.

10Not only that, but Rebekah's children had one and the same father, our father Isaac.
11Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad–in order that God's purpose in election might stand:
12not by works but by him who calls–she was told, “The older will serve the younger.”†
13Just as it is written: “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”†
14What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!
15For he says to Moses,
“I will have mercy on whom I have mercy,
and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.Ӡ
16It does not, therefore, depend on man's desire or effort, but on God's mercy.
17For the Scripture says to Pharaoh: “I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.”†
18Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden.
19One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who resists his will?”
20But who are you, O man, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to him who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’”†
21Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use?
22What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath–prepared for destruction?
23What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory–





Everyone read them carefully. When we say, well this wouldn't be fair if it was this way. What is the answer to that. You will find the answer in verses 20 and 21. And verses 22 and 23 even give us the reason why he did it this way. Why did he do it this way? He did it so the vessels of mercy would see the riches of His glory.



I said in a post a while back, this is hard stuff. It's not easy, and that's why so many people refuse to believe it.



And let me ask all of you this. In all honesty, when you read Romans 9, can you possibly understand why I hold the position that I do about salvation? Does it not sound like what I've been saying in these verses just a little bit at least to you?


 

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