John 3:16 correctly interpreted. by #76749 ..... Religions Debate Forum
Date: 1/4/2008 11:29:12 PM ( 16 y ago)
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Dr. Wuest, professor emeritus of New Testament Greek at Moody Bible Institute in his New Testament (an Expanded Translation) translates it as: "...his uniquely begotten son."
Jesus himself denied being God's only son when they were about to stone him.
In John 10:30 Jesus said "I and the Father are one." On hearing this, the Jews picked up stones to stone him, and this passage follows: "...but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me? We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God. Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'? If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken-- what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'? Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does. But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father."
Even Genesis says that God created us "...in Our image, in the image of God created he them." Also notice that God is plural.
We are all God's children and Jesus and the bible says so.
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