Date:   10/11/2007 10:15:37 PM ( 17 y ago)
Hits:   2,288
URL:   https://www.curezone.org/forums/fm.asp?i=1019097

I'm still having a problem with getting this out of my mind. So I did a search on uveitis. Sort of a problem since just about everything I could find on it was writen in German, which I can read but can't understand what I am reading, lol.

However, I did learn that it's a leading cause of blindness. So, I'm still not sure how an eye specialist could miss this. I'd be glad to hear about how this is possible.

I also learned that it's an inflamatory condition. I also found this reference and I should have gotten the link to it, but failed to do so. I can probably find it again if anyone is interested...

"We investigated the incidence of circulating corneal epithelium antibodies in patients with uveitis. A high percentage of the patients (42%) were positive, whereas only 4% of controls had these antibodies in their serum. Significantly more patients with anterior and diffuse uveitis had corneal epithelium antibodies than did those with posterior uveitis. Subdivision of anterior uveitis into HLA-B27 positive versus negative patients showed a higher incidence of the antibodies in the HLA-B27 positive group. A previous history of uveitis may play a role in the pathogenesis of peripheral corneal thinning diseases, for which an autoimmune aetiology has been suggested."


I'll grant you that this is hard to understand. Note the last sentence, linking this to an autoimmune etiology.

So, with uveitis we have an inflamatory condition or response, a higher incidence of a certain kind of antibodies, and it's linked to an autoimmune origen.

So here is what I've been thinking, and it's only a possibility...could the uveitis actually have been the "trigger" itself?




 

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